Computer set 1 MCQs
Practice interactive objective questions for this topic. Select an option to instantly verify your answer and read detailed explanations.
Q.61
In a Linux file system, what critical information does an 'inode' data structure store?
A
The actual text contents of the file
B
The visual icon used in the graphical desktop
C
Metadata such as file permissions, ownership, and physical disk blocks
D
The bootloader execution path
Q.62
What overhead process occurs during 'context switching' in a multitasking operating system?
A
Translating virtual memory addresses
B
Saving the state of the preempted process and loading the state of the new process
C
Switching the monitor display input
D
Rebooting the kernel to apply updates
Q.63
What specifically does a Translation Lookaside Buffer (TLB) cache inside a CPU?
A
Web browser history
B
Frequently used ALU instructions
C
Recent virtual memory to physical memory address translations
D
Hard disk sector maps
Q.64
When assessing mechanical hard disk drive performance, what is 'rotational latency'?
A
The time it takes for the read/write head to move to the correct track
B
The time required for the desired disk sector to spin under the read/write head
C
The transfer speed over the SATA cable
D
The delay introduced by the OS file system
Q.65
Which OS synchronization mechanism utilizes an integer variable accessed through atomic wait and signal operations to prevent race conditions?
A
Semaphore
B
Deadlock
C
Spooler
D
Socket
Q.66
What is the specific function of the Master Boot Record (MBR) located on the first sector of a bootable disk?
A
It manages external USB drivers
B
It contains the initial bootloader code and the drive's partition table
C
It acts as a backup for corrupted files
D
It authenticates user passwords
Q.67
Why do Solid State Drives (SSDs) internally implement 'wear-leveling' algorithms?
A
To optimize battery life on laptops
B
To distribute write/erase cycles evenly and prevent premature failure of flash memory blocks
C
To defragment files automatically
D
To encrypt data dynamically
Q.68
In asymmetric cryptography, which key is mathematically used to create a verifiable Digital Signature?
A
The sender's public key
B
The sender's private key
C
The receiver's public key
D
The receiver's private key
Q.69
Which type of cyberattack involves injecting malicious client-side scripts into web pages viewed by other users?
A
SQL Injection
B
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
C
Buffer Overflow
D
ARP Spoofing
Q.70
How does a polymorphic virus typically attempt to evade detection by signature-based antivirus software?
A
By disabling the firewall completely
B
By encrypting network traffic to the dark web
C
By mutating its decryption module and code layout upon each new infection
D
By hiding entirely within the motherboard RAM
Q.71
What is the primary security objective of deploying a 'honeypot' on a corporate network?
A
To act as an impenetrable firewall blocking all traffic
B
To act as a decoy system to attract, track, and analyze attacker behavior
C
To filter out spam emails
D
To encrypt internal employee communications
Q.72
Which cryptographic technique appends a unique random string to a password before hashing it to defeat rainbow table attacks?
A
Steganography
B
Salting
C
Symmetric Padding
D
Tokenization
Q.73
In biometric security systems, what does the False Acceptance Rate (FAR) metric specifically measure?
A
The percentage of authorized users incorrectly denied access
B
The percentage of unauthorized users incorrectly granted access
C
The speed at which the scanner processes a fingerprint
D
The failure rate of the hardware scanner
Q.74
In the context of malware networks, what is the function of a Command and Control (C2) server?
A
It hosts legal antivirus updates
B
It is a centralized machine that issues malicious instructions to infected zombie computers
C
It acts as a trusted Certificate Authority
D
It provides two-factor authentication tokens
Q.75
How is a 'zero-day exploit' fundamentally defined in cybersecurity?
A
A virus that deletes all data at exactly midnight
B
A cyberattack that utilizes a software vulnerability unknown to the software vendor
C
A social engineering attack targeting new employees
D
A physical breach of server hardware
Q.76
Which network protocol suite is primarily used to provide secure VPN communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet?
A
IPsec
B
SMTP
C
ICMP
D
SNMP
Q.77
What type of active eavesdropping attack involves an adversary secretly intercepting and possibly altering communications between two parties who believe they are communicating directly?
A
Denial of Service (DoS)
B
Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
C
Phishing
D
Brute Force
Q.78
Which coding practice is considered the most effective primary defense against SQL Injection attacks in web applications?
A
Enabling SSL/TLS certificates
B
Using prepared statements and parameterized queries
C
Hiding database error messages
D
Using a Web Application Firewall (WAF)
Q.79
Which email retrieval protocol is stateful, maintaining message statuses and leaving emails on the server by default for multi-device syncing?
A
POP3
B
IMAP
C
SMTP
D
FTP
Q.80
In the Domain Name System (DNS), what specific mapping does a CNAME record facilitate?
A
Maps a domain name directly to an IPv4 address
B
Maps an alias domain name to its true canonical domain name
C
Designates the mail exchange server for the domain
D
Provides text information to verify domain ownership
Q.81
How many bits constitute a standard IPv6 network address?
A
32 bits
B
64 bits
C
128 bits
D
256 bits
Q.82
What is the core operational difference between TCP and UDP at the transport layer?
A
TCP is connectionless, UDP establishes a connection handshake
B
TCP ensures reliable ordered delivery, UDP is fast but offers no delivery guarantees
C
TCP is used only for local networks, UDP is for the internet
D
TCP encrypts data automatically, UDP does not
Q.83
Which exterior gateway routing protocol mathematically determines the best paths for traffic traveling between major ISPs and Autonomous Systems?
A
OSPF
B
RIP
C
BGP
D
EIGRP
Q.84
What specific networking technique does the Tor browser rely on to conceal user identity and web traffic?
A
MAC address spoofing
B
Onion routing through layers of volunteer-operated encrypted relays
C
Clearing browser cookies every session
D
Compressing HTML requests
Q.85
To reduce latency and connection overhead, the modern HTTP/3 protocol transitions away from TCP to use which transport protocol?
A
QUIC over UDP
B
SCTP
C
IPsec over IPv6
D
Telnet
Q.86
Which internet standard fundamentally extends email formats to support non-ASCII text character sets, video, audio, and application attachments?
A
SMTP
B
MIME
C
LDAP
D
SOAP
Q.87
What major capability does the WebSocket protocol provide for modern web applications?
A
It replaces HTML with XML
B
It provides persistent, full-duplex, two-way communication over a single TCP connection
C
It forces websites into 'dark mode'
D
It blocks third-party tracking scripts
Q.88
In large-scale internet architecture, what defines an Autonomous System (AS)?
A
A server that patches itself using AI
B
A connected group of IP routing prefixes managed by one or more network operators with a single routing policy
C
A personal local area network (LAN)
D
A self-driving database cluster
Q.89
When browsing the web, what does receiving a 403 Forbidden HTTP status code explicitly mean?
A
The server could not find the requested URL
B
The server is temporarily overloaded
C
The server understands the request but refuses to authorize access
D
The domain name registration has expired
Q.90
In Google's original PageRank algorithm, what conceptual behavior does the 'damping factor' simulate?
A
The chance a page will be taken offline
B
The probability that a random surfer will eventually stop clicking links and navigate elsewhere
C
The penalty for keyword stuffing
D
The reduction in page loading speed over time